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Philip Koop's avatar

I am not qualified to attempt any of your pedagogical questions, but I do have a remark apropos of this sentence: "A typical human in 1500—hell, 1875—had a material standard of living not that much different from that of the typical human back in –3000."

I suspect that many or perhaps most of us do not fully appreciate how close to us in time and space Malthusian conditions have obtained. I recently read this remarkable passage in Nicholas Wright's book "Warhead":

"Starvation and underfeeding matter long before military operations begin. Before World War II, malnutrition associated with the Great Depression took a physical toll on American men. The U. S Army accepted almost anyone sane, over 5 feet tall, 105 pounds in weight, with 12 or more of their own teeth, and free of flat feet, venereal disease, and hernias - yet 40 percent of citizens failed to meet these criteria."

David E Lewis's avatar

I'm asking, not critiquing here.

Upon what do you base this statement: "But there was not, or at least there was very little, economic growth as we would term it. A typical human in 1500—hell, 1875—had a material standard of living not that much different from that of the typical human back in –3000"

How did the average citizen of Ugarit, e.g. live in the centuries of the Bronze Age trade flourishing?

Did the average Egyptian never experience a meaningful increase in the standard of living over decades when the priesthood's Nile monitor was working and inter-regional politics were stable?

Did the Mayan civilization never boom?

I know we have no or limited at best data here but I can't help but wonder if economic growth in ways that quite likely were measured did occur regionally, for long periods, when the operating "sense" of the world matched the capital infrastructure and the politics.

Has there ever been in recorded history such a synchronicity of transport, communication and industrialized capital as came together in the 19th C and continues...increasingly haltingly..today?

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