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Alex Tolley's avatar

"start in January 1871 with an initial wealth W,

choose a leverage L,

invest W*L in the stock market,

invest W*(1-L) in safe long-term Treasury bonds,

reinvest interest and dividends,

pay no taxes,

incur no transactions costs,

and rebalance every January.

"

How does the average person have leverage of > 1 as this means shorting LT treasuries? How can you avoid transaction costs AND rebalance [what exactly] annually.

This all seems as nonsensical as technical trading on prices ASSUMING NO TRANSACTION COSTS.

L=1 means 100% equities. Where is the 1987 stock market drop? Not visible. How can that be?

The analysis should assume any starting point and evaluate the 10 year returns. How many years do you get real value losses? [Wasn't this the case 1970-1980 - that is visible in teh charts?]

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Fernando Pereira's avatar

Math typo? What does W*(1-L) mean when L>1, as is the case for optimal L = 1.6?

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