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I take it that you consider the proximate cause of wage suppression to be information asymmetry, rather than naked monopsony power. Do you view this asymmetry as exogenous? Or does it indicate a continuation of monopsony by other means?
I take it that you consider the proximate cause of wage suppression to be information asymmetry, rather than naked monopsony power. Do you view this asymmetry as exogenous? Or does it indicate a continuation of monopsony by other means?