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I'm a bit unclear as to the critical difference between the experience of England and that of later industrialisers like Germany.

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If this was a science, a null hypothesis would be provided, and evidence showing that the UK experience was different from that of other similar nations industrializing during the steam age.

Anecdotally, I think the US had more of the population engaged in agriculture for much later than the UK, but I don't have the data to back this up.

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Would it follow that the Engels' pause was peculiar to the UK? Or at least longer?

It would be interesting to know how many were drawn from agriculture to manufacturing because of the commercial revolution. A good index for this might be the number of people employed in the merchant navy.

My understanding is that many of the advances in agricultural productivity were borrowed form the low lands. Would be interesting to see if pattern of employment shifted there in the same way.

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I'm curious what impact the importation of foodstuffs from North America might have on this cycle in England or elsewhere.

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Pomeranz's book the Great Divergence deals with this sort of question.

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Thanks. I'll check it out.

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I meant to add that the availability of (stolen) land in North America as an outlet for excess population may also have had an effect.

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